Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 28.06.2025 01:37
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
You'll usually find your answer there.
There's no rule.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Have you ever had sex with your mother-in-law? If so, how was it and did your wife ever find out?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Fuga eaque dolorum deserunt omnis velit.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.